AIIMS Rishikesh Nursing Officer Exam held on 8 February 2019 Question and Answer Key

AIIMS Rishikesh Memory based question and answer key 2019

Please read this to see AIIMS Rishikesh exam question and answers held on 8 February 2019. These questions and answer are memory based question of students collected by NANC Academy. Please do comment any other question if you know and not considered in this page.

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AIIMS Rishikesh Answer Key 2019

Image based question PDFAIIMS Rishikesh exam image based question

Q1-which one is the capital of dadar and nagar haveli?

  1. naroli
  2. karad
  3. silvassa
  4. tokarkhada

Q2- which one is the capital of south Australia?

  1. Adelende
  2. Parth
  3. Sydney
  4. Melborn

Q3-Who is the present time present of india?

  1. Narendar damodar das modi
  2. Ramnath kovind
  3. Pranav mukharji
  4. Ramannathan

Q4-Which one is the capital of south Africa?

  1. CAPETON
  2. JOHANSBARG
  3. PRETORIA
  4. BOLEMFONTEIN

Q5-WHO is current chief minister of uttarakhand?

  1. Trivendar singh rawat
  2. Arvind patel
  3. Pratibha patil
  4. Kiran rao

Q6-who is the current governor of uttarakhand?

  1. Baby rani maurya
  2. Mayawati
  3. Vankya naidu
  4. Rama patel

Q7-there are 80 number of students in the class and 30% of them are girls how many boys are there?

Total number of girls=80off 30%

=80*30/100=24

So total boys 80-24=56

Q8-A person byus bicycle for 3200 rupees and sells it for 4000 rs what will be his profit percent?

  1. 25%
  2. 30%
  3. 50%
  4. 100%

Q9-what is the most suitable site for BCG vaccine?

  1. ID
  2. SC
  3. IM
  4. ORALLY

Q10- the most common site for PPD?

  1. IM
  2. ID
  3. SC
  4. BY SCRATCHING THE SKIN

Q-11-the most common suitable route for administering of DPT vaccine?

  1. Vastus lateralis muscles of thigh
  2. Mid deltoid
  3. abdomen
  4. Sc

Q12-What is the pathogen that causes tetanus?

  1. Trypanosome cruzi
  2. Babesia microti
  3. Toxoplasma gonodi
  4. Clostridium tetani

Q13-what is the pathogen that causes leprosy?

  1. Clostridium perfringens
  2. Mycobacrtium tuberculosis
  3. Pseudomonas acruginosa
  4. Mycobacterium leprae

14-the maxium amount for intramuscular injection?

  1. 2ml
  2. 5ml
  3. 3ml
  4. 10ml

Q15-vice president is the member of ex-office?

  1. Rajya sabha
  2. Lok sabha
  3. Vidhan parishad
  4. Taluk

Q16-Mhlar flash with contraction and relaxation during which phase of labour?

  1. Active phase
  2. Propulsive phase
  3. Transitional phase
  4. Pushing phase

Q17-anxity affected by?

  1. Increased emotions
  2. Increased activity
  3. Decreased emotion
  4. Decreased activity

Q18-vastus lateralis muscles injection should be inserted at an ………angle to the skin?

  1. 15 degree
  2. 45 degree
  3. 90 degree
  4. 180 degree

Q19-which method used for contraceptive for 1 year wants to pregnancy if patient have recurrent vaginal infection and DM?

  1. IUD
  2. DIPHRAGM
  3. LIGATION
  4. OCP

Q20- which risk factor cause cva of pt?

  1. DM
  2. HTN
  3. OCP
  4. OBESITY

Q21-A client has hepatitis and his wife immunization with the immunoglobulin which type of immunity development?

  1. Antigen
  2. Antibody
  3. Active immunity
  4. Passive immunity

Q22-DRs prescribed to pt for 10 ml medicine so nurse should prepare how many tea spoon?

  1. 2 TSF
  2. 3 TSF
  3. 4 TSF
  4. 5 TSF

Q23-DRs order 0.75 gm synthroid per oral daily. available synthroid 250 mg tablet how many tab will you give to pt?

  1. 2 TAB
  2. 3 TAB
  3. 4 TAB
  4. 5 TAB

Q24-DRs order infuse 1000 ml dextrose with 0.45 % nacl over 8 hrs drop factor 15 gtt/min how many gtt/minute will regulate the iv?

  1. 31 gtts/minute
  2. 45 gtts/minute
  3. 21gtts/minute
  4. 39 gtt/minute

Q25-What is the antidote for toxic levels of heparin?

  1. Protamine sulphate
  2. Aminocaprocic acid
  3. Warfarin
  4. N-acetylcysteine

Q26- What is the normal range of intraocular pressure?

  1. 10-20 mmhg
  2. 10-30 mmhg
  3. 5-10 mmhg
  4. 10-15 mmhg

Q27- A child digoxin dose should be withheld if their heart rate is less then-

  1. 100 B/M
  2. 80 B/M
  3. 110 B/M
  4. 120 B/M

Q28-WHAT is the average adult pulse rate?

  1. 140-150 B/M
  2. 115-125 B/M
  3. 60-100 B/M
  4. 120-140 B/M

Q29-The normal ph of the blood is approximately?

  1. 35-7.45
  2. 50-7.65
  3. 15-7.25
  4. 0-7.20

Q30- THE apical pulse is measured?

  1. 4th ICS mid clavicular line
  2. 5th ICS mid clavicular
  3. 5-6 ICS
  4. 3-4 ICS

Q31-At stated in the lab,the normal values for urine specific gravity are?

  1. 020
  2. 030
  3. 010
  4. 050

Q32-ONE of the following changes occur in EEG due to hyperkalemia?

  1. Decrese PR interval
  2. Prolonged QT interval
  3. Ventricular systole
  4. Prolonged PR interval/prolonged QRS interval

Q33-A girl presented with severe hyperkalemia and peaked T waves on ECG most rapid way to decrease serum potassium level?

  1. Oral resins
  2. Insulin with glucose
  3. Sodium bicarbonate
  4. Potassium chloride

Q34-What is the richest source of vitamin-c are….?

  1. Green leafy vegatible
  2. Seeds
  3. Fresh vegetables and citrus fruits
  4. Sea foods

Q35-During prenatal visit a patient tells you her last menstrual period was 5-08-2018 based on the negeles rule when is the EDD of patient?

  1. 27-02-2019
  2. 12-03-2019
  3. 12-02-2019
  4. 12-05-2019

Q36-what position given to child after lumber puncture?

  1. Lateral side lying
  2. Prone
  3. Supine position without pillow
  4. Low folower position

Q37-The most commonly used test for accurate measure of visual acuity is which of the following?

  1. Jaegar card
  2. Confrontation test
  3. Snellen eye chart
  4. Hirschberg TEST

Q38-Pedal pulse assessed which site are?

  1. Felt over the dorsalis
  2. Felt below the dorsalis
  3. Medial malleolus
  4. Over the antecubital fossa

Q39-Schilling test is done for?

  1. Vitamin B12 deficiency
  2. Vitamin folic acid deficiency
  3. Vitamin B6 deficiency
  4. Vitamin D deficiency

Q40-the nurse is providing discharge instruction to a client following gastrectomy and should instruct the to take which measures to assist preventing dumping syndrome?

  1. Ambulate following meal
  2. Eat high carbohydrate diet
  3. Limit the fluids taken with meals
  4. Sit in high carbohydrate diet during meal

Q41- A new-born has a meningeal the nurse should place him in which position?

  1. Semi fowler
  2. Supine
  3. Prone
  4. None of above

Q56-Psoriasis means-psoriasis is a complex, chronic, multifactorial, infectious disease that involve hyper proliferation of the epidermis (superficial inflammatory process involving primalary the epidermis)

Q57-Paralytic ileus –obstruction of the intestine due to paralytic of the intestine muscles.

Sign/symptom-increase abdominal girth, Absent bowel movement, Abdominal distension

Q58-Myasthenia gravis early symptom-ptosis (early and classic symptom)-diplopia

Q59-CLOSTOMY ASTOMA CLEAN WITH-USED PLAIN WARM WATER

Q-60- Which one of the following complication of long time treatment of mengititis are-hearing loss, epilepsy, dementia

Q61-Little swelling are presents in arm when pt receiving vincristine drugs, so nurse first action vincristine is a anticancer drug and also a vesicant drugs. so nurse immediately stop infusion if swelling occurs to prevent extravasation.

Q62-Which pt prone for decubitus ulcer-

Ans. old age, unconscious, obese, malnourished, urine and faecal incontinence pt are always risk for decubitus ulcer

Q63-After 8 hrs of nephrostomy pt complaint nausea and vomiting and abdominal distension, what nurse understand?

-nephrostomy tube may be dislodged

Q64-Which action taken by nurse when pt having nausea in early morning during pregnancy,

     Ans  eating biscuits, toast before start daily routine and plenty of fluid

          -avoid fatty and spice food and fried

Q65-What are the reason for giving vitamin tablet in enteric coated form?

-an enteric coated is a polymer barrier applied on oral medication that prevents its disintegration in the gastric environment

Q 67- patient tell it is poisonous food-

Ans- the nurse should assure the patients that there is no poison in food

Q 68 Diets provides for liver cirrhosis patients-

Ans- high carbohydrates & high carbohydrate diet but low protein diet

Q 69 what nursing action taken if patients have redness in coccyx area

Ans- reposition every two hours if sleeping and one hourly if siting, dry skin moisturiser applies onto skin

Q 70 which of the following condition that arise due to long time G I suctioning

Ans- metabolic acidosis

Q 71 patient have humorous fracture. Nurse should take immediate action in home care-

Ans-  immobilization of affected arms

Q 72 patients with sengestaken blackmore tube have respiratory distress. What is the responsibility of nurse.

Ans- cut and withdrawn the tube immediately the oxygen admiration

Q 73 patient had occur multiple fracture, right ear drainage due to car accident. Nurse should assess side effect of

Ans- basal skull fracture

Q 74 red brown bleeding present after one hours of ear surgery. Nurse concern about

Ans- its normal finding after surgery

Q 75 the nurse what should do before general surgery of patients

Ans- provide psychological support to patients & relatives

Q 76 Open angle glaucoma-

Ans- Open angle glaucoma develops slowly overs times and there is no pain

Q 77 Vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell crisis due to –

Ans- shrinking of sickle cell RBC in blood vessels

Q 78 In sickle cell crisis priority

Ans- increased fluid 1600 ml per 8 hourly

Q 79 the route of anaesthesia which is used in cataract surgery

Ans- local anaesthesia

Q 80 how many time should be avoided of heavy work after cataract surgery

Ans- 4 weeks

Q 81 nasogastric tube insert abdomen through pylorus and duodenum

Q 82 After defibrillator what action taken

Ans- immediately start CPR 

Q83 Apgar score assessed 1,5 minutes &score is 4 what action taken by nurse in following category of depressed?

Ans –moderate depressed

Q 85 which position are provided after hip replacement to prevent disbalance………

Answer –Abduction of operated leg or elevated affected leg

Q86.Femur fracture pt present for foot drop by…..

Answer-Brace for femur fracture & foot board for unconscious pt.

Q87.Ondasterone given to chemotherapy pt for-

Ans-To prevent nausea & vomiting.

Q88 what is the early sign of immune suppressed pt .

Ans-Infection.

Q89-Route of nitro-glycerine administration

  Ans- sublingual, IV &Topical patch

Q90 position provide after surgery to promote deep breathing….

Ans High Fowler position.

Q91 transmission route of hepatitis A

Ans- feco-oral route

Q 92 multiple sclerosis is caused by

-demyelination of CNS.

Q 93 what is the action of pilocarpine in closed angled glaucoma

Ans- reduce IOP

Q94 first sign of stomach cancer is

Ans- anorexia

Q95- A and  B do work 4hrs ,b&c can do works 3 hrs and A&C also can do 2 hrs so how much time taken for complete b?

Q96-Crutch are used below the AXILLA-

Ans-a crutch is a mobility aid that transfer weight from legs to the upper body .it is often used by people who cannot use their legs to support that weight for reason ranging from short term injuries to lifelong disabilities

Q97-Aspirin is taking with which food-

Ans-soda bi carbonate

Q98-pregnant lady with-

Ans-G4P1

Q99-most common dangerous symptom CT-

ANS-Infection, alopecia, bone marrow depression

Q100- Care given in OA?

Other Answer Key:

UP NHM Staff Nurse & ANM Answer key

Assessment of temperature – Type of thermometer 

 

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